Bld 63, Level 4
Missenden Road, Camperdown
FRACP
EXAMINATION REVISION
Paper B
9th February 2002
MOCK EXAMINATION
Held in the Library
1) A 19-year-old male college student is evaluated for shortness of breath that occurs when he plays basketball or jogs. He has no other symptoms and does not smoke cigarettes. Physical examination complete blood count, and radiograph of the chest are normal. Which of the following is most likely to be helpful in confirming the suspected diagnosis?
(A) Arterial blood studies before and after exercise
(B) Spirometry before and after exercise
(C) Spirometry before and after administration of bronchodilators
(D) Determination of lung volumes and diffusing capacity
(E) Measurement of venous blood lactate before and after exercise
2) A 19-year old man comes to the emergency department because of urethral discharge. Gram stain shows numerous neutrophils, some of which contain gram-negative intracellular diplococci. Ceftriaxone 250mg intramuscularly, is administered. Five days later, the patient comes to your office because discharge has persisted.
Which of the following is the most likely cause of this discharge?
(A)
Chlamydia
trachomatis
(B)
Ureaplasma
urealyticum
(C) Penicillin-resistant Neisseria gonorrhoeae
(D)
Re-infection with Neisseria
gonorrhoeae
(E) Urethral stricture
3) A 65-year-old man who has just moved to your city is referred to you by his previous physician for management of recently diagnosed congestive heart failure. The patient has a history of poorly controlled hypertension. Three months ago progressive shortness of breath, increased fatigue, and two-pillow orthopnea developed. One month ago he consulted his physician about these symptoms, and he brought his records from that visit to you:
This patient is 178 cm (70 in) tall and weighs 86 kg (190 lb); body mass index
is 27. Pulse rate is 100-112 per minute, and rhythm is regular; blood pressure
is 150/90 mm Hg. The neck veins are 3 cm above the sternal angle with the
patient at a 45-degree angle. There are bibasilar moist crackles that do not
clear on coughing. The heart is enlarged; a ventricular gallop is present, but
there are no murmurs. There is 2+ ankle adema. The remainder of the physical examination is normal. Routine laboratory studies are normal except
for a blood urea 8.1mmol/ l nitrogen and a serum creatinine of 133 Mmol/l .
Electrocardiogram shows left ventricular hypertrophy. Radiograph of the chest shows an enlarged heart and calcified aorta.
Blood urea nitrogen 15 mmol/l
Serum creatinine 150 Mmol/l
Serum sodium 135 mEq/L
Serum potassium 3.5 mEq/L
Serum digoxin 1.8 ng/mL {therapeutic: 1.0-2.0}
Which of the following should you do now?
(A)
Reassure the patient
and schedule a return appointment in one month
(B)
Increase digoxin to
0.25 mg daily alternating with 0.375 mg daily
(C)
Increase furosemide
to 20 mg twice daily
(D)
Add captopril, 12.5
mg three times daily, to the current regimen
________________________________________________________________________________
4) A
74-year-old woman, who was treated for breast cancer six years ago, is brought
to the emergency room because of severe weakness and obtundation. According to her family she has had increasing
weakness, obtundation, polyuria, urinary incontinence, and poor oral intake for
one week. One month ago, computed
tomography of the head revealed multiple intracerebral lesions. The patient was given radiation therapy to
the brain lesions, and she has been taking dexamethasone, 12 mg orally daily
for 2 weeks.
Physical
examination on admission shows an acutely ill woman who is obtunded and
disoriented. Temperature is 36.6 C
(97.8 F). Pulse rate is 100 per minute
and regular. Respirations are 28 per
Blood pressure is 110/60 mm Hg supine and 90/50 mm Hg sitting. Tissue turgor is poor. The neck is supple. The lungs are clear. There is no heart murmur or ventricular
gallop. There is lower abdominal
tenderness, especially in the suprapubic area.
Diffuse muscle weakness is noted.
No lateralizing neurologic signs or abnormal reflexes are noted.
Laboratory
studies:
Leukocyte
count 19,500/cu mm;
90% neutrophils,
8%
lymphocytes, 2% monocytes
Plasma
glucose 48 mmol / l
Blood
urea nitrogen 16 mmol / l
Serum
creatinine 177 mmol/ l
Serum
calcium 2.2 mmol/ l
Serum
electrolytes:
Sodium
130 mEq/L
Potassium
5.0 mEq/L
Chloride
96 mEq/L
Bicarbonate
24 mEq/L
Urinalysis
Glucose 4+,
protein 2+; 30-40 WBCs,
5-6 RBCs/hpf; moderate
bacteria
Cultures
of blood and urine are requested.
Which
of the following should you administer during the next four hours?
(A)
0.45% saline
containing 10 units of regular insulin/L at 600 mL/hr
(B)
0.9% saline
containing 10 units of regular insulin/L at 600 mL/hr
(C)
0.45% saline at 600
mL/hr and NPH insulin, 25 units subcutaneously
(D)
5% dextrose and 0.45%
normal saline containing 10 units of regular insulin/L at 600 mL/hr
(E)
Ringer’s lactate
solution containing 10 units of regular insulin/L at 600 mL/hr
5) Among
workers aged 18 through 25, abuse of which of the following substances is
implicated most frequently as the cause of occupational accidents and injuries?
(A)
Alcohol
(B)
Cocaine (including
crack)
(C)
Marijuana
(D)
Benzodiazepines
(E)
Opiates
6)
A 76-year-old woman
is evaluated because of a history of “currant jelly” stool on three separate
occasions in the past three years. She
reports having had “many tests,” including barium enemas, sigmoidoscopies, and
esophagogastroduedenoscopies, which failed to define the cause of the
bleeding. One year ago she required two
units of blood to raise her hematocrit from 24% to 30%. She has been taking iron, 300 mg orally
twice daily, since then.
The patient has hypertension, coronary artery disease, and heart
failure treated with digoxin, enalapril, furosemide, and metoprolol. She does not have chest pain or dyspnea.
The patient is 157 cm (62 in) tall and weighs 79 kg (174
lb); body mass index is 32. Temperature
in C (97.7 F). Pulse rate is 88 per
minute, and respirations are 14 per minute.
Blood pressure is 120/ 70 Hg supine and 118/82 mm Hg standing. The conjunctivae are pale. A ventricular gallop and a grade 3 systolic
ejection murmur are heard. There are
bruits over both femoral arteris.
Rectal examination reveals dark brown stool that is positive for occult
blood. Other findings of physical
examination is normal.
Barium enema shows a few diverticular scattered throughout
the descending and transverse colon Colonoscopy shows angiodysplasia of the
cecum; no bleeding site is seen.
Technetium (99mTc) red cell scan of the colon is
negative. Hemoglobin is 10.5g/dL;
hematocrit is 30%.
Which of the following would be most appropriate at this
time?
(A)
Continued observation
(B)
Repeat barium enema
(C)
Embolization of the
mesenteric artery
(D)
Right hemicolectomy
(E)
Mesenteric
angiography
7)
A 75-year-old woman
who is a neighbour of yours calls and asks you to stop by on your way home
because for three days she has had markedly increasing fatigue and has been
unable to get around denies cough, chest or abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting,
sweating, or fever. You order a home
laboratory service to obtain a complete blood count, plasma glucose, blood urea
nitrogen, and serum electrolytes and agree to see her in the evening.
The patient is known in the neighbourhood as being somewhat
reclusive. She has no family except for
a daughter to whom she has not spoken in 20 years.
On physical examination at her home she is pale and appears
significantly fatigues and mildly short breath. Temperature is 37.0 C (98.6 F); pulse rate is 92 per minute and
regular in a sitting position 105 per minute standing; standing up is difficult
for her because of arthritis. Blood
pressure is 125/60 Hg sitting and 105/50 mm Hg standing. Examination of the chest reveals crackles at
both lung bases, no area of dullness.
There is an intermittent ventricular gallop. The abdomen soft, with no masses or ternderness. There are marked joint deformities of both
kness but no redness Edema (1-2+) is noted in the lower extremities. Neurologic examination, including a mental
status examination, is entirely normal except for some decrease in recent
memory.
Laboratory studies (obtained this morning):
Hematocrit
40%
Leukocyte
count 9500/cu mm; 80%
segmented neutrophils,
7%
band forms, 13% lymphocytes
Plasma
glucose 4.3 mmol / l
Blood
urea nitrogen 6.1 mmol / l
Serum
creatinine 106 Mmol/l
Serum
electrolytes :
Sodium
135 mEq/L
Potassium
4.0 mEq/L
Chloride 104 mEq/L
Bicarbonate
24 mEq/L
Although you advise the patient to be admitted to the
hospital, she adamantly refuses and asks you to call her daughter.
Which of the following is the best plan of action at this
time?
(A)
Initiate proceedings
to have her declared incompetent
(B)
Ask her to find a
different physician
(C)
Call a psychiatrist
for advice
(D)
Order furosemide, 20
mg orally, and visit her again the next day
(E)
Call the daughter and
ask her to encourage her mother to be hospitalised.
8)
You are asked to see
a 17-year-old male student who was admitted to the hospital because of painful
swollen right knee. The patient’s
mother informs you that he has had large bruises after minor injuries al his
life. Six months ago he bled for about
ten days after biting his tongue; he was admitted to the hospital and given
three blood transfusions. The patient
has no siblings. The mother tells you
the brother required a transfusion following tonsillectomy and bled for two
weeks following a dental extraction.
Her sister’s son has large bruises after minor injuries and has been
found to have “some kind of hemophilia.”
The patient took acetaminophen about two hours ago because of pain in
the knee; he received no other medication.
Which of the following test results would be expected?
Partial
Bleeding
time thromboplastin time Prothrombin time Thrombin time
(A) Abnormal Normal Abnormal Normal
(B) Normal Abnormal Normal Normal
(C) Normal Abnormal Abnormal Normal
(D) Normal Normal Abnormal Abnormal
(E) Normal Abnormal Abnormal Abnormal
9)
Which of the
following is most useful in the evaluation of a patient suspected of having
occupational asthma?
(A)
Skin testing with
common airborne allergens to determine the patient’s atopic status
(B)
Methacholine
challenge test to determine the presence of bronchial
hyperreactivity
(C)
Radioallergosorbent
test (RAST) to detect serum lgE antibodies to suspected
Inhaled allergens
(D)
Serial measurements
of ventilatory function performed before, during, and after work
(E)
Documentation of a
known sensitizing agent at the patient’s workplace
10)
A previously healthy
75-year-old woman is brought to your office by he son, who noted that his
mother has had a poor appetite, lost at least 4.5 kg (10 lb), and been
withdrawn for three months. The patient
has not had cough or fever, but she tires easily and has been constipated.
The patient appears very subdued, but she responds to questions. Temperature is 37.1 C (98.8 F) rate is 96
per minute, and rhythm is irregularly irregular. Blood pressure is 150/90 mm Hg in both arms. The eyelids droop. Examination of the fundi reveals grade II hypertensive
changes. Estimated central venous
pressure of 8 cm H2O; the neck is otherwise normal. Examination of the heart and lungs reveals a
grade 2/6 systolic murmur at the axilla
and crackles at both lung bases. The
abdomen is normal. She subdued but
oriented, and generalised weakness that is most marked in the hip flexors is
noted; neurologic examination is otherwise normal.
Laboratory findings include the following: hematocrit of
38%, leukocyte count of 7300/cu mm, and urea nitrogen of 3.2 mmol/ l
Which of the following would be most useful in establishing
the diagnosis?
(A)
Edrophonium chloride
(Tension) test
(B)
50% glucose,
intravenously
(C)
Intravenous thaimine
(D)
Intravenous
methylprednisolone
________________________________________________________________________________
11)
A 24-year-old man is evaluated
for facial pain and fever lasting four days.
Symptoms began with upper respiratory tract infection accompanied by
purulent nasal discharge; he then began to have over the right cheek and fever
to 38.4 C (101.1 F).
Physical examination reveals purulent
nasal discharge and tenderness over the right maxilla. C T Scan confirm right maxillary sinusitis.
Which of the following is the
most cost-effective antibiotic treatment for this patient?
(A)
Amoxicillin-clavulanate
(B)
Penicillin
(C)
Dicloxacillin
(D)
Cefaclor
(E)
Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
12)
A healthy 71-year-old
man describes visual loss in his right eye.
Flashes of light and a curtain
of lateral vision began when he awoke eight hours ago. These symptoms have persisted.
Which of the following is the most
likely explanation?
(A)
Retinal vein
occlusion
(B)
Retinal detachment
(C)
Atheromebolic
occlusion of a lateral branch of the right retinal artery
(D)
Ocular migraine
(E)
Occipital lobe
seizure
13)
A 29-year-old woman
has had type 1 diabetes mellitus for 16 years and has been your patient for
years. During the past three years
blood pressure has increased from 110/70 to 135/86 mm Hg; no orthostatic
changes have been noted. The patient’s
hemoglobin A1C level has ranged from 8% to 9% {4.0-6.1}.
Today blood pressure is 130/84 mm
Hg. The patient routinely monitors her
blood glucose level and reports that recently it has fluctuated more than
usual, ranging from 60 to 210 mg/dL.
She also has nausea after eating and has required less food than usual
to satisfy her appetite.
Laboratory studies:
Blood
urea 6 mmol / l
Nitrogen 106 Mmol/ l
Serum
electrolytes
Sodium 136 mEq/L
otassium
4.2 mEq/L
Chloride 98 mEq/L
Bicarbonate 24 mEq/L
Hemoglobin A1C 6%
Urinalysis Protein 1+
Which
of the following is the most likely cause of this patient’s symptoms?
(A)
Adrenal insufficiency
(B)
Incipient renal
failure
(C)
Impaired epinephrine
release
(D)
Delayed gastric
emptying
(E)
Inaccurate insulin
administration
14)
A 50 year old
businessman underwent a vagotomy and antrectomy for duodenal ulcer disease 25
years previously. Since that time, he
has experienced four episodes of gastrointestinal haemorrhage from recurrent
stomal ulceration. Fasting serum
gastrin (whilst on no therapy) is 390 pmol/L (normal <60).
The most appropriate next investigation
is:
(A)
Assessment of gastric
acid secretion
(B)
CT abdomen
(C)
A calcium infusion
test
(D)
Endoscopic
ultrasonagraphy
(E)
A secretin
stimulation test
15)
A 24 yr old woman
presents complaining of embarrassing excessive hair on her face and limbs which
was first noticed in high school but dismissed by her GP as being due to
adolescent ‘hormone problems’. She
also has irregular periods and found it difficult to lose weight.
On examination: Hirsuit, normal voice, no clitoromegaly,
otherwise normal feminization, euthyroid, not cushingoid, BP 140/87. BMI 30 kg/M2 and WHR 1.0.
Investigations: Total serum testosterone within normal range
for women, DHEAS normal, PRL normal, 170H Progesterone normal. LH/FSH ratio 1.5.
(A)
The LH/FSH ratio has
a greater than 96% sensitivity in diagnosing polycyctic ovarian disorder
(B)
Weight loss should be
the first treatment option as this has been shown to decrease free testosterone
and increase SHBG levels in patients with hirsuitism due to PCOS
(C)
She has a 5% chance
of having impaired glucose tolerance
(D)
The absence of
ovarian cysts on ultrasound would have excluded a diagnosis of PCOS
(E)
Her SHBG is likely to
be increased marginally
16)
A young mother
presents with a chronic loose motions and is found to have a painless thyroid
nodule. She has suffered from recurrent
renal calculi in the past and her mother died of thyroid cancer.
(A)
If she is found to
have a mutation of the RET proto-oncogene, she has a 60% chance of developing a
medullary carcinoma of the thyroid
(B)
Her child should be
genetically tested regardless of symptoms and signs, after the age of 6 but
before teenage
(C)
If she is positive
for the mutation, PCR analysis of other relatives is 100% specific and
sensitive for the mutation
(D)
If she is positive
for the mutation, FNABx is not indicated and she should undergo
hemithyroidectomy and lymph node clearance on the left side of the nodule
(E)
She has 9% chance of
also having a phaeochromocytoma.
17)
A young teenager
presents with pleuritic chest pain, dyspnoea, leukocytosis and a lower lobe
infiltrate on CXR. He has the blood
film shown. The most likely diagnosis
is:
(A)
Pneumococcal
pneumonia
(B)
Acute chest syndrome
(C)
Pulmonary embolism
(D)
Fat embolism

18)
A 60 yr old presents
to casualty with a 4hr history of dizziness, nausea and vomiting, falling to
the left. He says his right side feels
numb. On examination he has impaired
pain and temperature sensation on the face, limbs and trunk on the right and
impaired light touch, vibration and position sense greater in the leg than the
arm on the right. His wife also
comments that his eyes appear “uneven”.
He is most likely to have a lesion in,
(A)
The left superior
cerebellar artery
(B)
The left posterior
inferior cerebellar artery
(C)
The right anterior
inferior cerebellar artery
(D)
The right superior
cerebellar artery
(E)
The left posterior
cerebral artery
19)
A 30 year old man is
involved in a car crash and admitted to ICU after evacuation of a subdural
haematoma and open femoral fracture in theatre. He makes a slow recovery and upon regaining consciousness 3 weeks
later he remarks that his shoulders feel “numb”. On examination he is afebrile, there is a loss of pain and
temperature sensation over the shoulders and upper arms, however no loss of vibration
and position sense. There is some
associated muscle wasting over the shoulder right side greater than left. This is probably due to;
(A)
Anterior Spinal cord
syndrome secondary to hypotension peri-operatively
(B)
Epidural abscess
secondary to open wound
(C)
Syringomyelia
secondary to trauma
(D)
Unnoted Brown-Sequard
syndrome
(E)
Acute transerve
myelitis
20)
A young lady presents
to your surgery complaining of an enlarged R pupil. On examination, she is found to have no response to direct or
consensual light but a slow response to accommodation. In addition to this she is most likely to
have;
(A)
Absent reflexes
(B)
No response to
pilocarpine (0. 1-0.5%)
(C)
Oligoclonal bands in
her CSF
(D)
Hyperintense signal
in the midbrain on T2 weighted MRI
(E)
VDRL positive
21)
A 42 year old female
with a past history of recurrent spontaneous abortions is admitted for an
elective hysterectomy. Pre-operatively,
she is found to have a prolonged activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT)
of 50 seconds. A mixing test of 1:1
patient and normal plasma also gives a prolonged APTT. The prothrombin and thrombin clotting times
are normal.
Which one of the following
statements is incorrect?
(A)
Kaolin clotting time
may be helpful in identifying the cause of the prolonged APTT
(B)
There is a high risk
of surgical bleeding and the operation should be cancelled
(C)
There is a high risk
of deep venous thrombosis (DVT) post-operatively, and she should receive
heparin as prophylaxis
(D)
If she developed DVT
post-operatively, it would be possible to monitor heparin therapy by laboratory
tests
(E)
The test for
anticardiolipin antibody is likely to be positive
22)
A 55 year old man was
admitted for an elective cardiothoracic procedure in 1989. Two crossmatch compatible and fully screened
units of blood were transfused from his 2 children as dedicated donors. Ten days later he developed fevers,
erythematous desquamative skin rash, bloody diarrhoea, liver function
abnormalities and a severe pancytopenia.
Which of the following statements
is / are correct?
(A)
This probably
represented a delayed transfusion reaction due to an undetected antibody.
(B)
This problem was more
common with random donated units of blood than with dedicated blood from family
members
(C)
It was consistent
with hepatitis C infection
(D)
The illness was
consistent with graft-versus-host disease
(E)
The use of a white
cell filter would have prevented the occurrence of this syndrome
23)
With regard to herpes
simplex encephalitis in adults, which of the following statement is incorrect ?
(A)
It will usually
present as a focal neurological process
(B)
Most patients have
either a history of ‘cold sores’ or herpetic skin lesions present on
examination
(C)
About one half of
patients initially presumed to have herpes simplex encephalitis will have an
alternative diagnosis or no diagnosis made on brain biopsy
(D)
Viral antibody
detection in the CSF is a sensitive test for herpes simplex encephalitis early
in the course of the illness
(E)
Renal impairment is a
recognised complication of intravenous acyclovir

24)
A 36 year old Chinese
man presented with intermittent painful swollen achilles tendons. He had a history of episodes of transient
painful arthritis of his knees lasting 1-2 days during which he could not
stand. There was no other relevant past
or family history. On examination he
had enlarged non tender achilles tendons and nodules over his
metocarpophalangeal joints in the extensor tendons. Spinal movements were normal.
Which of the following statements
is/are correct?
(A)
He is most likely to
be HLA B27 positive
(B)
This presentation is
consistent with familial hypercholesterolaemia
(C)
Articular damage will
develop in his knees
(D)
An elevated uric acid
would confirm the diagnosis of gout
(E)
X-ray of his pelvis
is likely to show sacroiliitis

25)
A 45 year old man
with insulin dependent diabetes since the age of 12 years presented with a 12
month history of a painful restricted left shoulder. His shoulder movements were limited in all directions with no
evidence of weakness or rotator cuff tendinitis. He gave a past history of a right carpal tunnel syndrome which
responded to surgical decompression. He
gave a history of triggering of the fingers of both hands with increasing
limitation of finger movement.
Examination demonstrated skin thickening over the fingers but not the
remainder of the body. He had bilateral
Dupytren’s contractures.
Which of the following statements
is incorrect?
(A)
He has scleroderma
(B)
He has diabetic
cheirarthropathy
(C)
He is most likely of
short stature
(D)
Good control of his
diabetes may improve his condition
(E)
This condition is not
associated with abnormal nailfold capillaroscopy

26)
A female aged 17
years presents with constipation and the barium enema picture is shown
below. Which of the following
statements is incorrect?
(A)
Intermittent faecal
soiling is to be expected
(B)
Constipation probably
dates to childhood
(C)
The patient suffers
from Hirschsprung’s disease
(D)
The rectum may return
to normal size with laxative treatement
(E)
Colonic resection is
unnecessary

27)
A professional man
aged 54 years with a body mass index of 32 is found to have a mildly enlarged
liver. His alcohol consumption is 40g
daily. The following laboratory tests
were obtained:
serum
bilirubin 27 umol/l
serum
albumin 41 g/l
serum
globulins 28 g/l
AST
60 u/l
ALT
60 u/l
SAP
130 u/l
GGT
330 u/l
Serum
iron 24 umol/l
TIBC
51 umol/l
Ferritin
1200 ug/l
Which of the following statements is
correct?
(A)
The patient probably
has haemochromatosis
(B)
Mallory’s hyaline
found on liver biopsy would indicate alcoholic liver disease
(C)
The patient’s alcohol
consumption is very likely to lead to alcoholic cirrhosis
(D)
The elevation of GGT
is helpful in the differential diagnosis of this patient’s problems
(E)
Liver biopsy is most
likely to show fatty infiltration
28)
A previously well
male aged 27 years presents with fatigue and breathlessness over a period of 10
days. Clinically he is found to be
mildly jaundiced, pale and to have splenomegaly palpable 4cm below the left
costal margin. Full blood count reveals
haemoglobin 8.5 gm/dl, white cell count 12.5 x 109 per litre with
mild neutrophilia and platelet count 350 x 109 per litre. The Direct Coombs test is negative. Blood film shows large numbers of
spherocytes, but no other abnormalities.
Bone marrow biopsy shows marked reduction in erythroid precursors with
relatively normal myeloid and megakaryocytic elements. Further questions reveals there is a family
history of anaemia and a maternal uncle had had a therapeutic splenectomy.
Which
of the following statements is incorrect?
(A)
The patient is
probably suffers from G6PD deficiency
(B)
The likely diagnosis
is hereditary spherocytosis
(C)
Splenectomy is not
indicated in the management of this patient
(D)
Heinz body
preparation will be negative
(E)
B19
parvovirus infection may be implicated in the sudden development of anaemia
29) A nulliparous woman aged 23 years has tonic-clonic epilepsy. She is well controlled on sodium valproate and seeks advice relating to her disorder and medication in relation to preganancy.
Which
of the following statements is correct?
(A)
As she is well
controlled it is unlikely that there will be any alteration in the seizure
frequency during her pregnancy
(B)
Drug requirements may
decrease in the third trimester
(C)
Sodium valproate has
not been associated with any major congenital defects
(D)
Breast feeding should
be avoided while taking sodium valproate
(E)
There is an increased
risk of foetal malformation independent of drug therapy
30)
A man aged 50 years
presents with visual scintillations in the left eye and is found to have
unilateral left papilloedema. He has no
other neurological abnormality. Which
of the following statement is correct?
(A)
The unilateral nature
of the papilloedema excludes raised intracranial pressure (ICP)
(B)
A loss of peripheral
visual field in the left eye would support a diagnosis of ischaemic papillitis
(C)
In the absence of any
systematic disease, a normal CT scan of the orbit and anterior cranial fossa
supports a diagnosis of ischaemic papillitis
(D)
In ischaemic
papillitis, the risk of involvement of the other eye over 5 years is less than
5%
(E)
High dose steroids
reverse the changes of ischaemic papillitis
·
* *
* * *
1.
B
2.
A
3.
D
4.
B
5.
A
6.
A
7.
D
8.
B
9.
D
10.
B
11.
E
12.
B
13.
D
14.
E
15.
B
16.
C
17.
B
18.
B
19.
A
20.
B
21.
B
22.
D
23.
B
24.
B
25.
A
26.
C
27.
E
28.
A
29.
E
30.
C